If f(n)>k for all n≥1, what can we say about k?
Question
[Choose the one correct answer and explain your reasoning.]
The inequality (n+1)+(n4+2)+(n9+3)+(n16+4)+⋯+(n10000+100)>k is true for all n≥1. It follows that
- k<1300,
- k2<101,
- k≥10110000,
- k<5150.
Suggestion
What happens when n=1?
What happens to the LHS when n=2? Is it bigger or smaller than for the case n=1?
Solution
To make this a lot simpler, note that the expression
(n+1)+(n4+2)+(n9+3)+(n16+4)+⋯+(n10000+100)
increases as
n
increases, so the inequality holds for all
n≥1
if it holds for
n=1
. So we need
⟺⟺⟺(1+1)+(1+2)+(1+3)+(1+4)+⋯+(1+100)>k2+3+4+5+⋯+101>k2100(2+101)>k5150>k.
Hence the answer is (d).
Alternatively, we could have broken up the sum here as (1+1+⋯+1)+(1+2+⋯+100)=100+21×100×101.